Tuesday, November 03, 2009

Question of the day: What came first--Jewish supremacism or anti-Semitism?

(By Chris Moore) -- Are American Jewish exceptionlists, Jewish Zionists, Judeophile liberals and evangelist Zionists who single out Jews in general and the Jewish state in particular for special treatment (e.g. setting up the U.S. State Department Office of anti-Semitism, supporting Israel with an inordinate amount of U.S. aid and arms, which also serves as a de facto underwriting of Israeli nukes, rubber stamping vetoes of UN resolutions critical of Israel's abuse and discrimination against non-Jews as routine, encouraging American wars for Israel’s defense against America’s own best interests) engaged in formulaic singling out of Jews that is merely the flip side of formulaic anti-Semitism? How can Jewish-exceptionlists of any stripe object to the singling out of Jews by anyone when Jewish exceptionalism is behaviorism they reflexively engage in themselves?

Is there really any qualitative difference between an anti-Semite and a Jewish or gentile philo-Semite who claims Jewish mystical abilities or historical Jewish exceptionalism, and seeks to confer upon Jewry institutionalized rights and privileges by mere virtue of birth lines that are arbitrarily denied to gentiles for lack of Jewish lineage, or lack of a PR machine to publicize and broadcast their own “unique” histories or plight? Isn’t the entire Jewish uniqueness doctrine itself in fact prima-facie a form of anti-Semitism?

And isn't most so called "new anti-Semitism" merely a reaction by non Jewish-supremacists to contemporary attempts and successes by Jewish-supremacists and their gentile sycophants to internationally formalize and institutionalize doctrines of Jewish exceptionalism, and impose them upon non-Jews?

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