Monday, November 02, 2009
Question of the day: Why is raising "Jewish Bolshevism" a faux pas, but the "anti-Semitism" charge a cause célèbre?
Since raising the historical fact of Soviet Jewish Bolshevism is considered by some to be in poor taste due to Hitler’s utilization of the connection between Jews and Stalinist mass murder as a partial rationale for the Holocaust, why aren’t reckless “anti-Semite” charges hurled by political Jewry and partisans considered in poor taste due to Stalin utilizing the “anti-Semite” accusation as a partial rationale for the Soviet-perpetrated holocaust? Is this yet another Jewish-exceptionalist double standard? -- Chris Moore
Posted by Chris Moore at 9:39 PM